What I would like to know is how did this belief and standard start that aspects of the regulation of gun possession are automatic "infringements" upon the 2nd Amendment, when over the years, there have been similar limits placed upon free speech in the 1st Amendment.

For example, probably the most well-known 1st Amendment limit is that of how one can't scream "fire" in a crowded theater, while in more contemporary times other limits on free speech such as "hate speech" have been carved out. 

So how is it that it seems to be automatically believed as an infringement on one's right to bear arms when certain arms are brought up for limits? 

We have truly lost our way when the rights of school children are ignored over the insecurities and selfishness of a gun owner's demand for 2nd Amendment purity when it comes to firearms.

What is even sadder is when a state legislature acts more quickly on expelling duly elected members of a body for a protest than that of doing anything about the wanton killing of innocent people.