Wish you conservatives would get your story right - Lieberman vetoed any decision that would have led to the disallowing of overseas military ballots. There was never really a discussion about it in the Gore campaign. (Most likely out of the pure politics of looking bad and overseas Jewish voters.)

Now, what I'd like to ask you - is the Republican Party a "Rule of Law" party or not? I seem to recall during the Clinton blowjob witchhunt all one could hear the Republican party screaming was "Rule of Law, Rule of Law" but when it came to the 2000 election what did they seem to want? An exception to the rule of law for a group of people they thought would vote overwhelmingly for their candidate.

So which is it? Is the GOP for Rule of Law or not?

Next, let's move to the black vote in Florida. Here you have thousands of black voters that were thrown on voter rolls as being ineligible voters, when they were not. This was also KNOWN prior to election day and they were still not allowed to vote. So, again, where are the Republicans screaming "Rule of Law" again?

Now let's move to Ohio in 2004. Many voters were turned away from polls for a variety of reasons, one being long lines. Now, I'm not saying something was going on up there, but why did that happen in predominately black areas? And was there an exception made for them like those in the military back in 2000? (Which there was - invalid ballots were allowed and counted - sure, throw in the argument that if there is one group who should get to vote it should be that of those who are protecting the country, but again, under the Clinton Blowjob years there was that little thing called "Rule of Law".)

I get so sick and tired of the "my team" politics in this country and the Republicans seem the most adept at playing such a game. Just look at Rovegate.